Tuesday, March 30, 2010
Language Causing and Breaking New Rules
Sunday, March 28, 2010
¿Y que...?
I sent this out as a question, but realized that it would be absurdly long to project out on the screen, so I'm going to post it here for everyone's perusal.
How much does a researcher's willingness to believe a given outcome influence whether or not that person finds it? And how much does another researcher's negative reaction to such a "found" outcome motivate the undertaking of research to question its validity? The reason I ask is because it seems that a lot of the articles we are reading are responses to assertions of corruption of language, lack of linguistic ability, and other similarly negative characteristics of the language of code mixers. The general theme I've been seeing is that the first quest is to show why the apparently extra-linguistically motivated conclusion is untrue and then to say that the phenomenon in question (we've seen lack of skill, grammatical convergence, and calques) is in effect, inconsequential. We seem to be saying, "see, it happens in monolingual varieties too, just in a different way." The effect that this produces in the audience (i.e. grad students subjecting themselves to amounts of this stuff the way undergrads drink) is the frustration that all we are doing is showing that the categorically heinous findings published previously are in fact, and can to be proven with empirical evidence, categorically heinous. I think that the non-linguists in the room are then stymied by an overwhelming sense of SO WHAT?!!! Even though the author who wrote the categorically heinous findings was well, heinous, it was still compelling enough to want to disprove. Right now the only thing I feel compelled to do is find some mind-numbing activity that will compensate for reading through all that technical language. Maybe I'm asking to have my cake and eat it too, but when it comes to many of these articles that disprove previous research, not only do I want them to be correct (which they have taken great pains to be) but I want to want to care.
When analysing modeling, Otheguy offers calificar as an example of linguistic modeling: (3) Calificó a Carlos de incapaz de desempeñar ese cargo, (4) Carlos no es un hombre calificado para ese cargo, y (5) Carlos no califica para ese cargo. He points out that "speakers of general Spanish do not use calificar intransitively, as in (5)". He also lists saber as an example of linguistic modeling: (1) Mami, ¿cómo ese niño sabe a Eric?. It seems to me that these words differ still: While saber has changed lexically, its meaning encroaching on conocer, calificar (in 5) has changed grammatically. Do we have special labels for this?
Metaphorical application v semantic extension
Otheguy uses the examples (1) Mami, ¿cómo ese niño sabe a Eric? and (2) Papi, tú me prestas esa pluma y yo te la doy para atrás; please, please, préstamela y yo te la doy para atrás. He states: "The saber of (1) appears where speakers of general Spanish would almost certainly use conocer. It is said to be a semantic extension because, on the model of English know, the meaning of saber has been extended to areas that in unimpacted varieties are covered by conocer. The dar para atrás of (2) appears where speakers of general Spanish would almost certainly use devolver 'to return', and is said to be a loan translation or calque modeled on English give back." In his later examination of para atrás, he says that "Speakers of Spanish in the US could very well have gotten the idea from speakers of English that the concept of "behindness" in space could be applied metaphorically to the temporal notion of repetition." How is it exactly that a metaphorical application of para atrás differs from a semantic extension of saber?
Stereotypical language expectancy
Tecnicismos
The value of research
Tuesday, March 23, 2010
A cluster of amputated sentences...
Estoy recordando para atrás
View on linguistics
Monday, March 22, 2010
Loan translations (Otheguy 1993)
First of all, I must say that this article was very interesting, and it called to mind the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis of linguistic relativity, which says that a person's language affects (or at least influences) his or her conceptualization of the world. Otheguy seems to be making the opposite argument: that a person's conceptualization of the world affects or influences his or her language. So is it one or the other, or both (like a two-way street)?
Additionally, while I agree that cultural adaptation plays a role in the way language is used, I cannot completely disregard the idea of "word-for-word" translations. Why can't it both? If a translation of this kind exactly followed the word order of the donor language, the result would belong to neither language. Speakers who employ loan translations instinctively adapt them to their native syntactic structures and semantic devices, in order to avoid this problem. So, I still believe that the notions of "loan translations" and "word-for-word" translations are valid.
As a last question: Did Otheguy end by totally refuting the existence of loan translations, or not? Thanks for listening! :)
Sunday, March 21, 2010
Mid-Term Personal Review
Thursday, March 11, 2010
Poplack
I finally made it onto the blog! This article was interesting and frustrating at the same time. After our discussion in class I realize that there are many descriptions for the alternation of language use and words. However, giving a phenomena a name does not solve the complexities that accompany it. I think back to the article we read last week by England and can relate to the Maya who question the purpose of research. I am not saying I am against research in regard to code switching, borrowing, etc. I just feel like at some point the information can become redundant and overstated. I realize the importance of the goal of the researcher, but it feels like we are defending something that happens naturally but that is sometimes influenced socially. In most of the articles we have read, the purpose of the research is somewhat influenced (inevitably) by the researcher's personal experiences or even political views. That this is observed in the research makes me think about how the presentation of the data is viewed by the critics who have negative feelings toward this phenomena. Are we really getting our message across or are we fueling more negative feelings toward the phenomena? This is just a thought...
Wednesday, March 10, 2010
El sitio de conflicto
Comments on Poplack and Chucoboy
I also wanted to comment Jose’s linguistic passing blog. I agree with your terminology, and think that even Poplack created one of her own. For example, in the 1998 article she uses the term “vowel harmony” and gives an explanation for it. I am not sure whether this is legitimate or invented, but I like it.
Tuesday, March 9, 2010
A partir de today viva the codeswitching
Linguistic Passing
Sunday, March 7, 2010
I get it
Tuesday, March 2, 2010
Researcher and Researched
Presentation schedule...
3/10 - Abigail Feldman (afeldman@unm.edu)
3/22 - Cynthia Meléndrez (cmelen09@unm.edu)
3/24 - Alison Grochowski (agrochow@unm.edu)
3/29 - José Domínguez (jdomingu@unm.edu)
3/31 - Alison Grochowski (agrochow@unm.edu)
4/5 - José Domínguez (jdomingu@unm.edu)
4/7 - Ricardo Martínez (rmtz@unm.edu)
4/12 - Abigail Feldman (afeldman@unm.edu)
4/14 - Linda González (lgonzal7@unm.edu)
4/19 - N/A
4/21 - N/A
4/26 - Linda González (lgonzal7@unm.edu)
4/28 - Ricardo Martínez (rmtz@unm.edu)